"White People need to explain why they needed slaves". Jewish people need to explain why they owned the vast majority of slave ships.

[JoeBrotheChildSpitGuzzler]

Also bonus Pat accusing people of being lazy while being an unemployed, entitled burden

 

[sShenaniganz]

Jews need to explain why Jews owned 74% of slaves in America.

 

[TomFromNawlins]

What percentage of the population in the South owned slaves?
Does the distant descendant of someone who ate dirt in Appalachia need to offer an explanation?

 

[Snake]

What percentage of the population in the South owned slaves?
Does the distant descendant of someone who ate dirt in Appalachia need to offer an explanation?

80% of Jewish households had slaves and they ran the cotton industry and during the height of it owned most of them. American slavery started in Newport Rhode Island, right where the first American Synagogue was built and they would close the slave trade down for the sabbath.

 

[guest]

That cotton wasn’t going to pick itself

 

[BakersfieldChimp]

What percentage of the population in the South owned slaves?
Does the distant descendant of someone who ate dirt in Appalachia need to offer an explanation?

Numbers vary but somewhere between 2 and 5 percent.

 

[guest]

Jews are the most annoying creatures on God's flat earth.

 

[guest]

Another story that obviously never happened. Pat you're just pathetic.

 

[FurBurger]

A review of The Secret Relationship Between Blacks and Jews: Volume One, By Winthrop D. Jordan

In actuality, slave ownership was much more common in southern urban areas than in the southern countryside. The relatively high proportion of Jewish slaveholding was a function of the concentration of Jews in cities and towns, not of their descent or religion. It is also the case that urban slaveholders of whatever background owned fewer slaves on average than rural slaveholders, including those on large plantations. Thus the proportion of slaveholders has never been an accurate measure of the social or economic importance of slaveholding, unless it is assessed on a broadly regional or state-by-state basis. In this instance, as in so many others, the statistical data do not stand up and cry out their own true significance.

You see? Slaveholding was higher in urban areas not because of the actions of the Jews who owned slaves, but because slavery springs up naturally out of the ground in the areas where Jews happened to live. Besides, they owned fewer slaves than large industrial farms, which makes them blameless; just like the Africans who actually sold their countrymen into slavery.

TL,DR: It's all non-Jewish white people's fault, again.